(See) [2 points] Would the null hypothesis H_0:β_1=0 be rejected in favor of the alternative hypothesis H_a:β_1>0 in a test at the 1%
Question: [2 points] Would the null hypothesis \({{H}_{0}}:{{\beta }_{1}}=0\) be rejected in favor of the alternative hypothesis \({{H}_{a}}:{{\beta }_{1}}>0\) in a test at the \(1%\) level?
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