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(See Steps) Let V and W be finite-dimensional vector spaces with dim; V>dim; W, and let T: V \rightarrow W be a linear transformation? Could T have ker;(T)=0

Question: Let $V$ and $W$ be finite-dimensional vector spaces with $\operatorname{dim} V>\operatorname{dim} W$, and let $T: V \rightarrow W$ be a linear transformation? Could $T$ have $\operatorname{ker}(T)=\{0\} ?$ If so, give an example where this is the case; if not, explain why not.

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(See Steps) Let V and W be finite-dimensional vector spaces with dim; V>dim; W, and let T: V \rightarrow W be a linear transformation? Could T have ker;(T)=0

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