[Steps Shown] Explain why (1/2) ∫_a^b(X(t) Y^prime(t)-Y(t) X^prime(t)) d t measures the area of R provided that (X(t), Y(t)) sweeps out the boundary
Question: Explain why
\[\left(\frac{1}{2}\right) \int_{a}^{b}\left(X(t) Y^{\prime}(t)-Y(t) X^{\prime}(t)\right) d t\]measures the area of \(\mathrm{R}\) provided that \((\mathrm{X}(\mathrm{t}), \mathrm{Y}(\mathrm{t}))\) sweeps out
the boundary of \(\mathrm{R}\) exactly one time in the counterclockwise
fashion as \(\mathrm{t}\) advances from a to \(\mathrm{b}\).
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