[See] Explain why a monopoly would never set a price which falls on the inelastic region of the demand
Question: Explain why a monopoly would never set a price which falls on the inelastic region of the demand curve.
Deliverable: Word Document 
![[All Steps] Consider a market with two](/images/solutions/MC-solution-library-75111.jpg "[All Steps] Consider a market with two firms, one incumbent and")
[All Steps] Consider a market with two firms, one incumbent and
(See Steps) Consider a market in which 2 firms (1 and 2) sell
![[All Steps] A certain town in the](/images/solutions/MC-solution-library-75113.jpg "[All Steps] A certain town in the Midwest obtains all of its electricity")
[All Steps] A certain town in the Midwest obtains all of its electricity
![[Solution Library] Continuing the example from question](/images/solutions/MC-solution-library-75114.jpg "[Solution Library] Continuing the example from question 4, would")
[Solution Library] Continuing the example from question 4, would
![[All Steps] Assume a market in which](/images/solutions/MC-solution-library-75115.jpg "[All Steps] Assume a market in which every consumer has the same")
[All Steps] Assume a market in which every consumer has the same
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